Apply Map inside Apply Map

[#1]

Hi,

is it possible to write a code like applymap('map1',applymap('map2',Field1)) ? (I tested it 5 time ago it seems working [:)])

if it is possible what is the maximum level of applymap inside applymap ?

Thanks.

[Miguel_Angel_Baeyens · Accepted solution]

Hello Kerem,

It's possible and very useful indeed. You already tried it so you know. I have been using ten nested applymaps with some thousands of records and it went fine. I don't know, though, whether there is some limitation to the command.

Regards.

[#3]

Thanks very much 🙂 I have 30 milyon records and four level applymaps.Thanks

[#4]

Hi friends,

can you make me an example?

I can't make it work

thanks

regards

[marcohadiyanto]

hi all,

can i see the example?

i want to try but can't do it

thanks

[Miguel_Angel_Baeyens]

Hello Marco,

Kind of dummy example though:

EmployeeToCodeMap:
MAPPING LOAD * INLINE [
EmpID, EmpCode
A, 1000
B, 2000
C, 3000
]; 
NameToIDMap:
MAPPING LOAD * INLINE [
EmpName, EmpID
John, A
Peter, B
Mike, C
]; 
TableWithEmployeeNames: // Here I want the code for the employee
LOAD Name, 
     ApplyMap('NameToIDMap', Name, 'Without ID') AS ID, // This passes the employee name and returns the employee ID 
     ApplyMap('EmployeeToCodeMap', ApplyMap('NameToIDMap', Name, 'Without ID'), 'Without Code') AS Code, // Need the first applymap to get the ID, then the second to get the code 
     Address
FROM Emloyees.qvd (qvd); // Or whatever source

Hope that helps

[stevedark]

Hi there,

Please take a look at this blog post for a discussion on the use of the ApplyMap statement:

http://bit.ly/kQcAZ5

Steve

[ysj]